HAM Radio 3.2

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#NOVICE1D 2A-1.1 What is the Amateur Radio Service? A. A private radio service used for personal gain and public benefit B. A public radio service used for public service communications C. A radio communication service for self-training and technical experimentation D. A private radio service intended for the furtherance of commercial radio interests ~ 2A-2.1 What is an amateur radio operator? A. A person who has not received any training in radio operations B. Someone who performs communications in the Amateur Radio Service C. A person who performs private radio communications for hire D. A trainee in a commercial radio station ~ 2A-3.1 What is am amateur radio station? A. A licensed radio station engaged in broadcasting to the public in a limited and well defined area B. A radio station used to further commercial radio interests C. A private radio service used for personal gain and public service D. A radio station operated by a person interested in self-training, intercommunication and technical investigation ~ 2A-4.1 What is amateur radiocommunication? A. Non-commercial radio communication between Amateur Radio stations with a personal aim and without pecuniary interest B. Commercial radio communications between radio stations licensed to non-profit organizations and businesses C. Experimental or educational radio transmissions controlled by student operators D. Non-commercial radio communications intended for the education and benefit of the general public ~ 2A-5.1 What is that portion of an amateur radio license that conveys operator privileges? A. The verification section B. Form 610 C. The operator license D. The station license ~ 2A-6.1 What authority is derived from an amateur radio station license? A. The authority to use specified operating frequencies B. The authority to have an Amateur Radio station at a particular location C. The authority to enforce FCC Rules when violations are noted on the part of other operators D. The authority to transmit on either amateur or Class D citizen's band frequencies ~ 2A-7.1 What is a control operator ? A. A licensed operator designated to be responsible for the emissions of a particular station B. A person, either licensed or not, who controls the emissions of an Amateur Radio Station C. An unlicensed person who is speaking over an Amateur Radio Station's microphone while a licensed person is present D. A government official who comes to an Amateur Radio Station to take control for test purposes ~ 2A-7.2 What is the term for the amateur radio operator designated by the station licensee to also be responsible for the emissions from that station? A. Auxiliary operator B. Operations coordinator C. Third party D. Control operator ~ 2A-8.1 What is third-party traffic? A. A message passed by one Amateur Radio control operator to another Amateur Radio control operator on behalf of another person B. Public service communications handled on behalf of a minor political party C. Only messages that are formally handled through Amateur Radio channels D. A message from one Amateur Radio station to another in which a third Amateur Radio station must relay all or part of the message because of propagation problems ~ 2A-8.2 Who is a 'third-party' in amateur radiocommunications? A. The Amateur Radio station that breaks into a two-way contact between two other Amateur Radio stations B. Any person passing a message through Amateur Radio communication channels other than the control operators of the two stations handling the message C. A shortwave listener monitoring a two-way Amateur Radio communication D. The control operator present when an unlicensed person communicates over an Amateur Radio station ~ 2A-9.1 What are the Novice control operator frequency privileges in the 80 meter band? A. 3500 - 4000 kHz B. 3700 - 3750 kHz C. 7100 - 7150 kHz D. 7000 - 7300 kHz ~ 2A-9.2 What are the Novice control operator frequency privileges in the 40 meter band? A. 3500 - 4000 kHz B. 3700 - 3750 kHz C. 7100 - 7150 kHz D. 7000 - 7300 kHz ~ 2A-9.3 What are the Novice control operator frequency privileges in the 15 meter band? A. 21.100 - 21.200 MHz B. 21.000 - 21.450 MHz C. 28.000 - 29.700 MHz D. 28.100 - 28.200 MHz ~ 2A-9.4 What are the Novice control operators frequency privileges in the 10 meter band? A. 10.100 to 10.109 B. 10.115 to 10.150 C. 28.000 to 29.700 D. 28.100 to 28.500 ~ 2A-9.5 What, if any, frequency privileges are authorized to Novice control operators beside those in the 80, 40, 15, and 10 meter bands? A. All authorized Amateur Radio frequencies above 50.0 Mhz B. None C. 145 to 147 Mhz D. 222.1 to 223.91 MHz and 1270 to 1295 MHz ~ 2A-9.6 In what frequency bands is a Novice authorized to be the control operator of an amateur station? A. 1800 to 2000kHz, 3750 to 3775 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz, 21,100 to 21,200 Khz, 28,100 to 28,500 kHz B. 3700 to 3750 khz, 7100 to 7150 kHz, 21,100 to 21,200 kHz, 28.1 to 28.5 MHz, 222.1 to 223.91 MHz, 1270 to 1295 Mhz C. 3.5 to 4.0 MHz, 7.0 to 7.3 MHz, 21.0 to 21.4 MHz, 28.0 to 29.7 Mhz, 1240 to 1296 MHz D. 3.5 to 4.0 MHz, 7.0 to 7.3 MHz, 14.0 to 14.35 MHz 21.0 to 21.45 Mhz, 28.050 to 29.7 MHz, 222.1 to 223.91 MHz ~ 2A-9.7 What does the term 'frequency band' mean? A. A group of frequencies in which two way contacts are likely to occur during any time of the day B. A group of frequencies in which Amateur Radio transmissions are authorized C. One specific frequency D. One specific wavelength ~ 2A-9.8 What does the term 'frequency privilege' mean? A. The purchase of a frequency for one's use B. Permission to use a particular frequency C. A requirement to use a particular frequency D. Permission to pass routine traffic only on a particular frequency ~ 2A-9.9 In what meter band is the Novice control operator frequency privilege 3725-kHz A. 80 meters B. 40 meters C. 15 meters D. 10 meters ~ 2A-9.10 In what meter band is the Novice control operator frequency privilege 7125-kHz A. 80 meters B. 40 meters C. 15 meters D. 10 meters ~ 2A-9.11 What frequencies may a Novice control operator use in the amateur 10-meter band? A. 28.1 to 28.5 MHz B. 30.1 to 30.5 MHz C. 27.1 to 27.5 MHz D. 28.0 to 29.7 MHz ~ 2A-9.12 What frequencies may a Novice control operator use in the amateur 220-MHz band? A. 225.0 to 230.5 MHz B. 222.1 to 223.91 MHz C. 224.1 to 225.1 MHz D. 221.2 to 223.0 MHz ~ 2A-9.13 What frequencies may a Novice control operator use in the amateur 1270-MHz band? A. 1260 to 1270 MHz B. 1240 to 1300 MHz C. 1270 to 1295 MHz D. 1240 to 1246 MHz ~ 2A-9.14 What frequencies may a Novice control operator use in the amateur 23-centimeter band? A. 1260 to 1270 MHz B. 1240 to 1300 MHz C. 1270 to 1295 MHz D. 1240 to 1246 MHz ~ 2A-10.1 What emission type is authorized to Novice control operators? A. Any emission authorized to the Amateur Radio Service in the 80, 40, 15, and 10 meter CW subbands B. Any authorized emission used below 29.7 MHZ on the Amateur Radio bands C. All emissions authorized to the Amateur Radio Service on frequencies between 222.1 and 223.91 MHz D. A3J between 145 and 147 MHz ~ 2A-10.2 What does the term 'A1A emission' mean? A. Extremely strong, copyable signals B. A very low Atmospheric Noise Count C. CW Morse code without audio modulation of the carrier D. Amplitude modulated radio telephony with only one sideband ~ 2A-10.3 What is the symbol for a transmission of telegraphy by on-off keying? A. A3J B. F3C C. J2B D. A1A ~ 2A-10.4 What does the term CW mean? A. Calling wavelength B. Coulombs per watt C. Continuous wave D. Continuous wattage ~ 2A-10.5 What, if any, emission privileges are authorized to Novice control operators beside A1A ? A. Any emission authorized to the Amateur Radio Service in the 80, 40, 15 and 10 meter CW subbands B. Any authorized emission used below 29.7 MHz on the Amateur Radio bands C. All emissions authorized to Amateur Radio Service on frequencies between 22.1 and 223.91 MHz D. A3J between 145 and 147 MHz ~ 2A-10.6 What telegraphy code may a Novice control operator use? A. Any telegraph code authorized for use in the Amateur bands B. Only the International Telegraph Alphabet Number Three C. ASCII, Packet and RTTY D. Baudot, AMTOR, and CW ~ 2A-10.7 Which, if any, telegraphy codes may a Novice control operator use beside the international Morse code? A. Any telegraph code authorized for use in the amateur bands B. Audio-frequency-shifted CW and AMTOR C. ASCII, Packet and RTTY D. Baudot, AMTOR, and CW ~ 2A-10.8 What does the term emission mean? A. RF signals transmitted from a radio station B. Signals refracted by the E layer C. Filter out the carrier of a received signal D. Baud rate ~ 2A-10.9 What is the term, as used in the Amateur Radio Service Rules, for a transmission from a radio station? A. Modulation index B. Resolution C. Emission D. Demodulated envelope ~ 2A-10.10 What does the term emission privilege mean? A. Permissible class of operator license B. Permissible type(s) of transmitted signals C. Permissible frequency of operation D. Permissible content of communications ~ 2A-10.11 What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use on frequencies from 28.3 to 28.5 MHz A. All authorized amateur emission privileges B. A1A and J3E C. A1A and F1B D. A1A and J3E ~ 2A-10.12 What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use on frequencies from 28.1 to 28.3 MHz A. All authorized amateur emission privileges B. A1A and J3E C. A1A and F1B D. A1A and J3E ~ 2A-10.13 What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use on the amateur 220 MHz band? A. All authorized amateur emission privileges B. A1A and J3E C. A1A and F1B D. A1A and J3E ~ 2A-10.14 What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use on the amateur 1270 to 1295 MHz band? A. All authorized amateur emission privileges B. A1A and J3E C. A1A and F1B D. A1A and J3E ~ 2A-10.15 On what frequencies in the 10-meter band are Novice control operators permitted to transmit emission F1B (RTTY) A. 28.1 to 28.5 MHz B. 28.0 to 29.7 MHz C. 28.1 to 28.2 MHz D. 28.1 to 28.3 MHz ~ 2A-10.16 On what frequencies in the 10-meter band are Novice control operators permitted to transmit emission J3E (single sideband voice) A. 28.3 to 28.5 MHz B. 28.0 to 29.7 MHz C. 28.1 to 28.2 MHz D. 28.1 to 28.5 MHz ~ 2A-10.17 On what frequencies in the 220-MHz band are Novice control operators permitted to transmit emission F3E (FM voice) A. 220 to 225 MHz B. 222.1 to 223.91 MHz C. 223 to 225 MHz D. 223.1 to 224.91 MHz ~ 2A-10.18 On what frequencies in the 220-MHz band are Novice control operators permitted to transmit emission A1A (CW) A. 220 to 225 MHz B. 222.1 to 223.91 MHz C. 223 to 225 MHz D. 223.1 to 224.91 MHz ~ 2A-10.19 On what frequencies in the 220-MHz band are Novice control operators permitted to operate packet radio? A. 220 to 225 MHz B. 222.1 to 223.91 MHz C. 223 to 225 MHz D. 223.1 to 224.91 MHz ~ 2A-10.20 On what frequencies in the 1270-MHz band are Novice control operators permitted to transmit emission F3E (FM voice)? A. 1240 to 1270 MHz B. 1250 to 1285 MHz C. 1270 to 1295 MHz D. 1295 to 1300 MHz ~ 2A-10.21 On what frequencies in the 1270-MHz band are Novice control operators permitted to transmit emission A1A (CW)? A. 1295 to 1300 MHz B. 1270 to 1295 MHz C. 1250 to 1285 MHz D. 1240 to 1270 MHz ~ 2A-10.22 On what frequencies in the 1270-MHz band are Novice control operators permitted to operate packet radio? A. 1295 to 1300 MHz B. 1270 to 1295 MHz C. 1250 to 1285 MHz D. 1240 to 1270 MHz ~ 2A-11.1 Under what circumstances,if any, may the control operator cause unidentified radiocommunications or signals to be transmitted from an amateur station? A. A transmission need not be identified if it is restricted to brief tests not intended for reception by other parties B. A transmission need not be identified when conducted on a clear frequency or "dead band" where interference will not occur C. A transmission must be identified under all circumstances D. A transmission need not be identified unless two-way communications or third-party traffic handling are involved ~ 2A-11.2 What is the meaning of the term unidentified radiocommunications or signals? A. Radiocommunications in which the transmitting station's call sign is transmitted in modes other than CW and voice B. Radiocommunications approaching a receiving station from as unknown direction C. Radiocommunications in which the operator fails to transmit his or her name and QTH D. Radiocommunications in which the transmitting station's call sign is not transmitted ~ 2A-11.3 What is the term for transmissions from an amateur station without the required station identification? A. Unidentified transmission B. Reluctance modulation C. N0N emission D. Tactical communication ~ 2A-12.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may the control operator of an amateur station willfully or maliciously interfere with or cause malicious interference to a radiocommunication or signal? A. You may jam another person's transmissions if that person is not operating in a legal manner B. You may interfere with another station's signals if that station begins transmitting on a frequency already occupied by your station C. You may never intentionally interfere with another station's transmissions D. You may expect, and cause, deliberate interference because it is unavoidable during crowded band conditions ~ 2A-12.2 What is the meaning of the term malicious interference? A. Accidental interference B. Intentional interference C. Mild interference D. Occasional interference ~ 2A-12.3 What is the term for transmissions from an amateur station which are intended by the control operator to disrupt other communications in progress? A. Interrupted CW B. Malicious interference C. Transponded signals D. Unidentified transmissions ~ 2A-13.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may the control operator cause false or deceptive signals or communications to be transmitted? A. Under no circumstances B. When operating a beacon transmitter in a "fox hunt" exercise C. When playing a harmless "practical joke" without causing interference to other stations that are not involved D. When you obscure the meaning of transmitted information to ensure secrecy ~ 2A-13.2 What is the term for a transmission from an amateur station of the word mayday when no actual emergency has occurred? A. A traditional greeting in May B. An Emergency Action System test transmission C. False or deceptive signals D. "MAYDAY" has no significance in an emergency situation ~ 2A-14.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station be used to transmit messages for hire? A. Under no circumstances may an Amateur Radio station be hired to transmit messages B. Modest payment from a non-profit charitable organization is permissible C. No money may change hands, but a radio amateur may be compensated for services rendered with gifts of equipment or services rendered as a returned favor D. All payments received in return for transmiting messages by Amateur Radio must be reported to the IRS ~ 2A-14.2 Under what circumstances, if any, may the control operator be paid to transmit messages from an amateur station? A. The control operator may be paid if he or she works for a public service agency as the Red Cross B. The control operator may not be paid under any circumstances C. The control operator may be paid if he or she reports all income earned from operating an Amateur Radio station to the IRS as receipt of tax-deductible contributions D. The control operator may be paid if he or she works for an Amateur Radio Station that operates primarily to broadcast telegraphy practice and news bulletins for Radio Amateurs ~ 2A-15.1 What are the five principles which express the fundamental purpose for which the Amateur Radio Service rules are designed? A. Recognition of emergency communications, advancement of the radio art, improvement of communication and technical skills, increase in the number of trained radio operators and electronics experts, and the enhancement of international good will B. Recognition of business communications, advancement of the radio art, improvement of communication and business skills, increase in the number of trained radio operators and electronics experts, and the enhancement of international good will C. Recognition of emergency communications, preservation of the earliest radio techniques, improvement of communication and technical skills, maintain a pool of people familiar with early tube type equipment, and the enhancement of international good will D. Recognition of emergency communications, advancement of the radio art, improvement of communications and technical skills, increase in the number of trained radio operators and electronics experts, and the enhancement of a sense of patriotism and nationalism ~ 2A-16.1 Call signs of amateur stations licensed to Novices are from which call sign group? A. Group A B. Group B C. Group C D. Group D. ~ 2A-16.2 What is the format of a Group D call sign? A. letter-number-letter-letter (ex: K5AA) B. letter-letter-number-letter-letter (ex: KA5AA) C. letter-letter-number-letter-letter-letter (ex: KA5AAA) D. letter-number-letter-letter-letter (ex: K5AAA) ~ 2A-16.3 What are the call sign prefixes for amateur stations licensed by the FCC? A. The letters A, B, C or D only B. The letters A or U only C. The letters W or K only D. The letters A, K, N, or W only ~ 2A-16.4 What determines the number in an amateur station call sign? A. Call sign district numbers are assigned in such a way as to have approximately equal numbers of radio amateurs in each district B. Call sign district numbers are assigned in numerical order. When all of the "1-call are assigned, the FCC begins issuing "2-calls, and so on C. Radio amateurs may request specific call sign district numbers for ease in Morse code reception of their calls D. The station location address given on an applicant's FCC Form 610 determines what call sign district number appears on an applicant's first radio amateur license ~ 2A-17.1 With which amateur stations may an FCC-licensed amateur station communicate? A. All amateur stations B. All public noncommercial radio stations unless prohibited by the station's government C. Only with US amateur stations D. All amateur stations, unless prohibited by the amateur's government ~ 2A-17.2 With which non-amateur radio stations may an FCC-licensed amateur station communicate? A. No non-amateur stations B. All such stations C. Only those authorized by the FCC D. Only,those who use the International Morse code ~ 2A-17.3 Under what circumstances may an FCC-licensed amateur station communicate with another amateur station in a foreign country? A. Only when the foreign country uses English as its primary language B. All the time, except on 28.600 to 29.700 MHz C. Only when a third party agreement exists between the US and the foreign country D. At any time unless prohibited by either the US or foreign government ~ 2A-17.4 Under what circumstances (other than RACES operation) may an FCC-licensed amateur station communicate with a non-amateur station? A. Anytime B. Only on permissible frequencies C. Only on 28.600 to 29.700 MHz D. Only when the FCC grants authorization for such communications ~ 2A-17.5 What is the term used in FCC Rules to describe transmitting signals to receiving apparatus while in beacon or radio control operation? A. Multiplex transmissions B. Duplex transmissions C. Signal path transmissions D. One-way transmissions ~ 2A-18.1 How often must an amateur station be identified? A. At the beginning of the contact and at least every ten minutes during a contact B. At least once during each transmission C. At least every ten minutes during a contact and at the end of the contact D. Every 15 minutes during a contact and at the end of the contact ~ 2A-18.2 If you were an amateur operator, how would you correctly identify your amateur station communications? A. With the name and location of the control operator B. With the call sign of the station licensee in all cases C. With the call of the control operator, even when he/she is visiting another radio amateur's station D. With the name and location of the station licensee, followed by the two-letter designation of the nearest FCC Field Office ~ 2A-18.3 What station identification, if any, is required at the beginning of a QSO? A. The operator originating the contact must transmit both call signs B. No identification is required at the beginning of the contact C. Both operators must transmit their own call signs D. Both operators must transmit both call signs ~ 2A-18.4 What station identification, if any, is required at the end of a QSO? A. Both operators must transmit their own call sign B. No identification is required at the end of the contact C. The operator originating the contact must always transmit both call signs D. Both operators must transmit their own call sign followed by a two-letter designator for the nearest FCC field office ~ 2A-18.5 What do the FCC Rules for amateur station identification require? A. Each Amateur Radio station shall give its call sign at the beginning of each communication, and every ten minutes or less during a communication B. Each Amateur Radio station shall give its call sign at the end of each communication, and every ten minutes or less during a communication C. Each Amateur Radio station shall give its call sign at the beginning of each communication, and every five minutes or less during a communication D. Each Amateur Radio station shall give its call sign at the end of each communication, and every five minutes or less during a communication ~ 2A-18.6 What is the fewest number of times an amateur station must transmit its station identification during a 15 minute QSO? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ~ 2A-18.7 What is the fewest number of times an amateur station must transmit its station identification during a 25 minute QSO? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ~ 2A-18.8 What is the fewest number of times an amateur station must transmit its station identification during a 35 minute QSO? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ~ 2A-18.9 What is the longest period of time during a QSO that an amateur station does not need to transmit its station identification? A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 20 minutes ~ 2A-18.10 What is the fewest number of times an amateur station must transmit its station identification during a 5 minute QSO? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ~ 2A-19.1 What amount of transmitting power may an amateur station use? A. 200 watts input B. 200 watts output C. 1500 watts PEP output D. The minimum legal power necessary to maintain reliable communications ~ 2A-19.2 What is the maximum transmitting power ever permitted to be used at an amateur station transmitting on frequencies available to Novice control operators? A. 75 watts PEP output on the 80, 40, and 15-meter bands B. 100 watts PEP output on the 80, 40, and 15-meter bands C. 200 watts PEP output on the 80, 40, and 15-meter bands D. 1500 watts PEP output on the 80, 40, and 15-meter bands ~ 2A-19.3 What is the amount of transmitting power that an amateur station must never exceed when transmitting on 3725-kHz? A. 75 watts PEP output B. 100 watts PEP output C. 200 watts PEP output D. 1500 watts PEP output ~ 2A-19.4 What is the amount of transmitting power that an amateur station must never exceed when transmitting on 7125-kHz? A. 75 watts PEP output B. 100 watts PEP output C. 200 watts PEP output D. 1500 watts PEP output ~ 2A-19.5 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station with a novice control operator transmitting on the amateur 10-meter band? A. 25 watts PEP output B. 200 watts PEP output C. 1000 watts PEP output D. 1500 watts PEP output ~ 2A-19.6 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station with a novice control operator transmitting on the amateur 220-MHz band? A. 5 watts PEP output B. 10 watts PEP output C. 25 watts PEP output D. 200 watts PEP output ~ 2A-19.7 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station with a novice control operator transmitting on the amateur 1270-MHz band? A. 5 milliwatts PEP output B. 500 milliwatts PEP output C. 1 watt PEP output D. 5 watts PEP output ~ 2A-19.8 What amount of transmitting power may an amateur station with a novice control operator use on the amateur 220-MHz band? A. Not less than 5 watts PEP output B. The minimum legal power necessary to maintain reliable communications C. Not more then 50 watts PEP output D. Not more than 200 watts PEP output ~ 2A-20.1 If you were an amateur operator and you received an Official Notice of Violation from the FCC, how promptly must you resond? A. Within 90 days B. Within 30 days C. Within 10 days D. The next day ~ 2A-20.2 If you were an amateur operator and you received an Official Notice of Violation from the FCC, to whom must you respond? A. Any office of the FCC B. The Gettysburg, PA office of the FCC C. The Washington, DC office of the FCC D. The FCC office that originated the notice ~ 2A-20.3 If you were an amateur operator and you received an Official Notice of Violation from the FCC relating to a violation that may be due to the physical or electrical characteristic of your transmitting apparatus, what information must be included in your response? A. The make and model of the apparatus B. The steps taken to guarantee future violations C. The date that the apparatus was returned to the manufacturer D. The steps taken to prevent future violations ~ 2A-21.1 Who is held responsible for the proper operation of an amateur station? A. The control operator B. The licensee C. Both the control operator and the licensee D. The person who owns the property where the station is located ~ 2A-21.2 When must an amateur station have a control operator? A. A control operator is only required for training purposes B. Whenever the station receiver is operated C. Whenever the transmitter is operated, except when the station is under automatic control D. A control operator is not required ~ 2A-21.3 Who may be the control operator of an amateur station? A. Any person over 21 years of age B. Any licensed Amateur Radio operator C. Any licensed Amateur Radio operator with an Advanced class license or higher D. Any person over 21 years of age with a General class license or higher ~ 2A-22.1 What does the term "digital communications" refer to? A. Amateur communications that are designed to be received and printed automatically B. Amateur communications sent in binary-coded decimal format C. A "hands-on" communications system requiring manual control D. A computer-controlled communications system, requiring no operator control ~ 2A-22.2 What term is used to describe amateur communications intended to be received and printed automatically A. Teleport communications B. Direct communications C. Digital communications D. Third-party communications ~ 2A-22.3 What term is used to describe amateur communications for the direct transfer of information between computers A. Teleport communications B. Direct communications C. Digital communications D. Third-party communications ~ 2A-23.1 When must the licensee of an Amateur Radio station in portable or mobile operation notify the FCC of such operation A. 1 week in advance, if the operation will last for more than 24 hours B. FCC notification is not required for portable or mobile operation C. 1 week in advance, if the operation will last for more than a week D. 1 month in advance of any portable or mobile operation ~ 2A-23.2 When may you operate your Amateur Radio station at a location other than the one listed on your station license? A. Only during times of emergency B. Only after giving proper notice to the FCC C. During an emergency or an FCC approved emergency preparedness drill D. Whenever you want to ~ 2B-1.1 What does the S in the RST signal report mean? A. The scintillation of a signal B. The strenth of the signal C. The signal quality D. The speed of the CW transmission ~ 2B-1.2 What does the R in the RST signal report mean? A. The recovery of the signal B. The resonance of the CW tone C. The rate of signal flutter D. The readability of the signal ~ 2B-1.3 What does the T in the RST signal report mean? A. The tone of the signal B. The closeness of the signal to "telephone" quality C. The timing of the signal dot to dash ratio D. The tempo of the signal ~ 2B-2.1 At what telegraphy speed should a CQ message be transmitted? A. Only speeds below five wpm B. The highest speed your keyer will operate C. The speed at which you can reliably receive D. The highest speed at which you can control the keyer ~ 2B-3.1 What is the meaning of the term 'zero beat'? A. Transmission and reception on the same operating frequency B. Transmission on a predetermined frequency C. Used only for satellite reception D. Unimportant for CW operations ~ 2B-3.2 Why should amateur radio stations in communication with each other zero beat? A. Reduction of interference caused by heterodyning carriers B. Conservation of radio frequency power output C. Facillation of synchronous demodulation of A1A emissions D. Conservation of radio spectrum space ~ 2B-4.1 How can on-the-air tune-up be kept as short as possible? A. By using a random wire antenna B. By tuning up on 40 meters first, then switching to the desired band C. By tuning the transmitter into a dummy load D. By using twin lead instead of coaxial-cable feed lines ~ 2B-5.1 What is the difference between the telegraphy abbreviations CQ and QRZ? A. CQ means "end of contact";QRZ means "my time zone is... B. CQ means "calling any station"; QRZ means "is this frequency in use?" C. CQ means "calling any station"; QRZ means "who is calling me?" D. CQ means "call on each quarter hour"; QRZ means "my radio zone is..." ~ 2B-5.2 __ What is the difference between the telegraphy abbreviations K and SK __ A. K means "all received correctly"; SK means "received some correctly" __ B. K means "any station transmit"; SK means "end of contact" __ C. K means "end of message"; SK means "best regards" __ D. K means "specific station transmit"; SK means "wait" ~ 2B-5.3 __ What are the meanings of telegraphy abbreviations DE, AR, and QRS? __ A. DE means "received all correctly"; AR means "only the called station transmit"; QRS means "interference from static" __ B. DE means "calling any station"; AR means "received all correctly"; QRS means send RST report" __ C. DE means "from, or "this is"; AR means "end of message"; QRS means send more slowly" __ D. DE means "directional emissions"; AR means "best regards"; QRS means "radio station location is..." ~ 2B-6.1 What is the format of a standard radiotelephone CQ call? A. Transmit the phrase "CQ" three times, followed by "this is", followed by your call sign three times B. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is", followed by your call sign two times C. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least five times, followed by "this is", followed by your call sign once D. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is", followed by your call sign once ~ 2B-7.1 How is the call sign "KA3BGQ" stated in Standard International Phonetics? A. King America Three Baker Golf Queen B. Kilo Alpha Three Bravo Golf Quebec C. Kilowatt Alfa Three Bravo George Queen D. Kilo America Three Baker Golf Quebec ~ 2B-7.2 How is the call sign "WB2OSQ" stated in Standard International Phonetics? A. Whiskey Baker Two Oscar Sierra Queen B. Whiskey Bravo Two Oscar Sierra Quebec C. Willie Baker Two Ontario Sugar Quebec D. Washington Bravo Two Oscar Sugar Queen ~ 2B-7.3 How is the call sign "ON4UN" stated in Standard International Phonetics? A. Ontario Nancy Four Uncle Nancy B. Ocean Norway Four Uniform Norway C. Oscar November Four Uniform November D. Oscar Nancy Four Unicorn Nancy ~ 2B-7.4 How is the call sign "WB1EYI" stated in Standard International Phonetics? A. Whiskey Bravo One Echo Yankee India B. Whiskey Baker One Echo Yankee Ida C. Willie Baker One Echo Yankee India D. Washington Baltimore One Easy Yellow Ida ~ 2B-8.1 What is the format of a standard RTTY CQ call? A. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is", followed by your call sign two times B. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least five times, followed by "this is", followed by your call sign once C. Transmit the phrase "CQ" three to six times, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign three times D. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is", followed by your call sign once ~ 2B-8.2 What are three common sending speeds for RTTY signals on the 10-meter band? A. "45 speed" (45 bauds), "100 speed" (100 bauds) and "1200 speed" (1200 bauds) B. "75 speed" (45 bauds), "110 speed" (80 bauds) and "1200 speed" (1170 bauds) C. "60 speed" (45 bauds), "105 speed" (80 bauds) and "1500 speed" (1475 bauds) D. "60 speed" (45 bauds), "75 speed" (56 bauds) and "100 speed" (75 bauds) ~ 2B-8.3 What is the commonly used RTTY sending speed above 50 MHz? A. 1200 bauds B. 60 bauds C. 100 bauds D. 9600 bauds ~ 2B-8.4 What is one common use for a RTTY mailbox? A. To leave a message with an amateur equipment dealer, ordering a new radio B. Storing messages from one amateur for later retrieval by another amateur C. To establish a QSO with another RTTY station, and then move off frequency D. To leave messages that will be mailed to another person the next day ~ 2B-8.5 What is the term used to describe an automatic RTTY system used to store messages from amateurs for later retrieval by other amateurs? A. A message delivery system B. An automatic teleprinting system C. A digipeater D. A RTTY mailbox ~ 2B-9.1 What do the letters "TNC" stand for? A. Terminal-Node Controller B. Tucson Network Controller C. Terminal Network Contact D. Tactical-Number Controller ~ 2B-9.2 What does the term "connected" mean in a packet-radio link? A. A telephone link has been established between two amateur stations B. An Amateur Radio message has reached a station for local delivery C. The transmitting station is sending data specifically addressed to the receiving station, and the receiving station is acknowledging that the data has been received correctly D. A transmitting and a receiving station are using a certain digipeater, so no other contacts can take place until they are finished ~ 2B-9.3 What does the term "monitoring" mean on a frequency used for packet radio? A. The FCC is copying all messages, to determine their content B. A member of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations Bureau is copying all messages to determine their content C. The receiving station's video monitor is displaying all messages intended for that station D. The receiving station is displaying information that may not be addressed to that station, and is not acknowledging correct receipt of the data ~ 2B-9.4 What is a digipeater? A. A packet-radio station used to retransmit data specifically addressed to be retransmitted by that station B. An Amateur Radio repeater designed to retransmit all audio signals in a digital form C. An Amateur Radio repeater designed using only digital electronics components D. A packet-radio station that retransmits any signals it receives ~ 2B-9.5 What is the meaning of the term 'network' in packet radio? A. A system of telephone lines interconnecting packet-radio stations to transfer data B. A method of interconnecting packet-radio stations so that data can be transferred over long distances C. The interlaced wiring on a terminal-node controller board D. The terminal-node controller that automatically rejects another caller when the station is connected ~ 2B-9.6 What is the term used to describe a packet-radio station used to retransmit data specifically addresed to be retransmitted by that station? A. A RTTY mailbox B. A network-node controller C. An autopatch D. A digipeater ~ 2B-9.7 What is the term used to describe a method of interconnecting packet-radio stations so that data can be transferred over long distances? A. Networking B. Crosslinking C. Autopatching D. Duplexing ~ 2B-9.8 What sending speed is commonly used for packet radio transmissions on the 220-MHz band? A. 45 bauds B. 110 bauds C. 1200 bauds D. 12,000 bauds ~ 2B-10.1 What is a good way to established a contact on a repeater? A. Give the call sign of the station you want to contact 3 times B. Call the other operator by name, then give your call sign 3 times C. Say "Breaker breaker," and then give your call sign D. Call the desired station and then identify your own station ~ 2B-10.2 What is the main purpose of a repeater? A. Repeaters extend the operating range of portable and mobile stations B. To provide a station that makes local information available 24 hours a day C. To provide a means of linking Amateur Radio stations with the telephone system D. To retransmit NOAA weather information during severe storm warnings ~ 2B-10.3 Why is there an input and an output frequency to describe the operating frequency of any repeater? A. All repeaters offer a choice of two operating frequencies, in case one is buzy B. The repeater receives on one frequency and transmits on another C. One frequency is used to control repeater functions and the other frequency is the one used to retransmit received signals D. Repeaters require an access code to be transmitted on one frequency while your voice is transmitted on the other ~ 2B-10.4 When should simplex operation be used instead of a repeater? A. Whenever greater communications reliability is needed B. Whenever you need someone to make an emergency telephone call C. Whenever a contact is possible without using a repeater D. Whenever you are traveling and need some local information ~ 2B-10.5 What is an 'autopatch'? A. A repeater feature that automatically selects the strongest received signal to be repeated B. An automatic system of connecting a mobile station to the next repeater as it moves out of range of the first C. A system that automatically locks other stations out of the repeater when there is a QSO in progress D. A device that allows repeater users to make telephone calls from their portable or mobile stations ~ 2B-10.6 What is the term used to describe a device that allows repeater users to make telephone calls from their portable or mobile stations? A. A amateur phone controller B. An autopatch C. A terminal node controller D. A phone patch ~ 2C-1.1 What type of propagation uses radio signals refracted back to earth by the ionosphere? A. Skip B. Earth-moon-earth C. Ground wave D. Troposheric ~ 2C-1.2 What is the meaning of the term 'skip propagation'? A. Signals reflected from the moon B. Signals refracted by the ionosphere C. Signals refracted by water-dense cloud formations D. Signals retransmitted by a repeater ~ 2C-1.3 What is the area of weak signals between the ranges of ground waves and the first-hop called? A. The skip zone B. The hysteresis zone C. The monitor zone D. The transequatorial zone ~ 2C-1.4 What is the meaning of the term 'skip zone'? A. An area covered by skip propagation B. The area where a satellite comes close to the earth, and skips off the ionosphere C. An area that is to far for ground wave propagation, but too close for skip propagation D. The area in the atmosphere that causes skip propagation ~ 2C-1.5 What does the term 'skip' mean? A. Signals are reflected from the moon B. Signals are refracted by water-dense cloud formations C. Signals are retransmitted by repeaters D. Signals are refracted by the ionosphere ~ 2C-1.6 What type of radio wave propagation makes it possible for amateur stations to communicate long distances? A. Direct-inductive propagation B. Knife-edge diffraction C. Ground-wave propagation D. Skip propagation ~ 2C-2.1 What type of propagation involves radio signals that travel along the surface of the Earth? A. Sky-wave propagation B. Knife-edge diffraction C. E-layer propagation D. Ground-wave propagation ~ 2C-2.2 What is the meaning of the term 'ground wave propagation'? A. Signal that travel along seismic fault lines B. Signals that travel along the surface of the earth C. Signals that are radiated from a ground-plane antenna D. Signals that are radiated from a ground station to a satellite ~ 2C-2.3 Daytime communication on 3.725-MHz is probably via what kind of propagation when the stations are located a few miles apart but separated by a low hill blocking their line-of-sight path? A. Tropospheric ducting B. Ground wave C. Meteor scatter D. Sporadic E ~ 2C-2.4 When compared to skip propagation, what is the usual effective range of ground wave propagation? A. Much smaller B. Much greater C. The same D. Dependent on the weather ~ 2C-3.1 Why can a VHF or UHF radio signal that is transmitted toward a mountain often be received at some distant point in a different direction? A. You can never tell what direction a radio wave is traveling B. These radio signals are easily reflected by objects in their path C. These radio signals are easily bent by the ionosphere D. These radio signals are sometimes scattered in the ectosphere ~ 2C-3.2 Why can the direction that a VHF or UHF radio signal is traveling be changed if there is a tall building in the way? A. You can never tell what direction a radio wave is traveling B. These radio signals are easily reflected by objects in their path C. These radio signals are easily bent by the ionosphere D. These radio signals are sometimes scattered in the ectosphere ~ 2C-4.1 What type of antenna polarization is normally used for communications in the 40-meter band? A. Electrical polarization B. Left-hand circular polarization C. Horizontal polarization D. Vertical polarization ~ 2C-4.2 What type of antenna polarization is normally used for communications in the 80-meter band? A. Right-hand circular polarization B. Magnetic polarization C. Horizontal polarization D. Vertical polarization ~ 2C-4.3 What type of antenna polarization is normally used for communications in the 15-meter band? A. Electrical polarization B. Horizontal polarization C. Right-hand circular polarization D. Left-hand circular polarization ~ 2C-4.4 What type of antenna polarization is normally used for communications in the 220-MHz band? A. Vertical polarization B. Horizontal polarization C. Magnetic polarization D. Left-hand circular polarization ~ 2C-4.5 What type of antenna polarization is normally used for communications in the 1270-MHz band? A. Enhanced polarization B. Vertical polarization C. Right-hand circular polarization D. Left-hand circular polarization ~ 2D-1.1 How can an amateur station be protected against being operated by unauthorized persons? A. Install a carrier-operated relay in the main power line B. Install a key-operated "ON/OFF" switch in the main power line C. Post a "Danger - High Voltage" sign in the station D. Install as line fuses in the main power line ~ 2D-2.1 Why should all antenna and rotor cables be grounded when an amateur station is not in use? A. To lock the antenna system in one position B. To avoid radio frequency interference C. To save electricity D. To protect the station and building from damage due to a nearby lightning strike ~ 2D-2.2 How can an antenna system be protected from damage due to a nearby lightning strike? A. Install a balun at the antenna feed point B. Install an RF choke in the feed line C. Ground all antennas when they are not in use D. Install a line fuse in the antenna wire ~ 2D-2.3 How can amateur station equipment be protected from damage due to lightning striking the electrical wiring in the building? A. Use heavy insulation on the wiring B. Keep the equipment on constantly C. Disconnect the ground system D. Disconnect all equipment after use, either by unplugging or by using a main disconnect switch ~ 2D-3.1 For proper protection from lightning strikes, what pieces of equipment should be grounded in an amateur station? A. The power primary supply B. All station equipment C. The feed line center conductors D. The ac power mains ~ 2D-3.2 What is a convenient indoor grounding point for an amateur station? A. A metallic cold water pipe B. PVC plumbing C. A window screen D. A natural gas pipe ~ 2D-3.3 To protect against electrical shock hazards, to what should the chassis of each equipment in an amateur station be connected? A. Insulated shock mounts B. The antenna C. A good ground connection D. A circuit breaker ~ 2D-4.1 When climbing an antenna tower, what type of safety equipment should be worn? A. Grounding chain B. A reflective vest C. Long pants D. A safety belt ~ 2D-4.2 For safety purposes, how high should all portions of a horizontal wire antenna be located? A. High enough so that a person cannot touch them from the ground B. Higher than chest level C. Above the knee level D. Above electrical lines ~ 2D-4.3 While assisting another person working on an antenna tower what type of safety equipment should a person on the ground wear? A. A reflective vest B. A safety belt C. A grounding chain D. A hard hat ~ 2D-5.1 What is a likely indication that radio frequency interference to a receiver is caused by front end overload? A. A low pass filter at the transmitter reduces interference sharply B. The interference is independent of frequency C. A high pass filter at the receiver reduces interference little or not at all D. Grounding the receiver makes it worse ~ 2D-5.2 What is the likely problem when radio frequency interference occurs to a receiver regardless of frequency, while an amateur station is transmitting? A. Inadequate transmitter harmonic suppression B. Receiver VR tube discharge C. Receiver overload D. Incorrect antenna length ~ 2D-5.3 What type of filter should be installed on a TV receiver tuner as the first step in preventing overload from an amateur station transmission? A. Low pass B. High pass C. Band pass D. Notch ~ 2D-5.4 What is meant by receiver overload? A. Interference caused by transmitter harmonics B. Interference caused by overcrowded band conditions C. Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby transmitter D. Interference caused by turning the receiver volume too high ~ 2D-6.1 What is meant by harmonic radiation? A. Transmission of signals at whole number multiples of the fundamental (desired) frequency B. Transmission of signals that include a super-imposed 60-Hz hum C. Transmission of signals caused by sympathetic vibrations from a nearby transmitter D. Transmission of signals to produce a stimulated emission in the air to enhance skip propagation ~ 2D-6.2 Why is harmonic radiation by an amateur station undesirable? A. It will cause interference to other stations and may result in out-of-band signal radiation B. It uses large amounts of electric power C. It will cause sympathetic vibrations in nearby transmitters D. It will produce stimulated emission in the air above the transmitter, thus causing aurora ~ 2D-6.3 What type of interference may radiate from a multiband antenna connected to an improperly tuned transmitter? A. Harmonic radiation B. Auroral distortion C. Parasitic excitation D. Intermodulation ~ 2D-6.4 What is the purpose of shielding in a transmitter A. It gives the low pass filter structural stability B. It enhances the microphonic tendencies of radio telephone transmitters C. It prevents unwanted RF radiation D. It helps maintain a sufficiently high operating temperature in circuit components ~ 2D-6.5 What is the likely problem when interference is observed on only one or two channels of a TV receiver while an amateur station is transmitting A. Excessive low-pass filtering B. Sporadic E de-ionazation C. Receiver front-end overload D. Harmonic radiation ~ 2D-6.6 What type of filter should be installed on an amateur transmitter as the first step in reducing harmonic radiation? A. Key click filter B. Low pass filter C. High pass filter D. CW filter ~ 2D-7.1 Why should the impedance of a transmitter final-amplifier circuit match the impedance of the antenna or feed line? A. To prevent sympathetic vibrations in nearby radio equipment B. To obtain maximum power transfer to the antenna C. To help maintain sufficiently high operating temperature in circuit components D. To create a maximum number of standing waves on the feed line ~ 2D-7.2 What is the term for the measurement of the impedance match between a transmitter final-amplifier circuit and the antenna or feed line? A.Voltage flyback ratio B. Impedance sine ratio C. Standing wave ratio D. Current over-feed ratio ~ 2D-7.3 What accessory is used to measure RF power being reflected back down the feed line from the transmitter to the antenna? A. An SWR meter B. RF tuner C. S-meter D. Field strength meter ~ 2D-7.4 What accessory is often used to measure voltage standing wave ratio? A. Ohmmeter B. Ammeter C. SWR bridge D. Current bridge ~ 2D-7.5 Where should a standing wave ratio bridge be connected to indicate the impedance match of a transmitter and an antenna? A. Between the antenna and the matchbox B. Between the key and transmitter C. Between the mike and the transmitter D. Between the transmitter and matchbox ~ 2D-7.6 Coaxial feed lines should be operated with what kind of standing wave ratio? A. As high as possible B. As low as possible C. Standing wave ratio is not important D. Standing wave ratios cannot be measured in a coaxial cable ~ 2D-7.7 If the standing wave ratio bridge reading is higher at 3700-kHz than at 3750-kHz, what does this indicate about the antenna? A. Too long for optimal operation at 3700 kHz B. Broadbanded C. Good only for 37-meter operation D. Too short for optimal operation at 3700 kHz ~ 2D-7.8 If the standing wave ratio bridge reading is lower at 3700-kHz than at 3750-kHz, what does this indicate about the antenna? A. Too long for optimal operation at 3750 kHz B. Broadbanded C. Good only for 37-meter operation D. Too short for optimal operation at 3750 kHz ~ 2D-8.1 What kind of standing wave ratio bridge reading may indicate poor electrical contact between parts of an antenna system? A. An erratic reading B. An unusually low reading C. No reading at all D. A negative reading ~ 2D-8.2 High standing wave ratio bridge readings measure from a half-wave dipole antenna being fed by coaxial cable can be lowered by doing what to the antenna? A. Change the electrical length of the antenna B. Reduce the diameter of the antenna's radiating element C. Connect a short jumper wire across the antenna's center insulator D. Use a feed line having less loss per foot ~ 2D-9.1 What precautions should you take when working with 1270-MHz waveguide? A. Make sure that the RF leakage filters are installed at both ends of the waveguide B. Never look into the open end of a waveguide when RF is applied C. Minimize the standing-wave ratio before you test the waveguide D. Never have both ends of the waveguide open at once when RF is applied ~ 2D-9.2 What precautions should you take when you mount a VHF or UHF antenna in a permanent location? A. Make sure that no one can be near the antenna when you are transmitting B. Make sure that the RF shield screens are in place C. Make sure that the antenna is near the ground to maximize directional effect D. Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed point ~ 2D-9.3 What precautions should you take before removing the shielding on a VHF or UHF power amplifier? A. Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna B. Make sure the feed line is properly grounded C. Make sure the amplifier cannot be accidently energized D. Make sure that the RF leakage filters are connected ~ 2D-9.4 Why should you use only good-quality, well-constructed coaxial cable and connectors for a VHF or UHF antenna system? A. To minimize RF leakage B. To reduce parasitic oscillations C. To maximize the directional characteristics of your antenna D. To maximize the standing-wave ratio of the antenna system ~ 2D-9.5 Why should you be carefull to position the antenna of your 220-MHz hand-held transceiver away from your head when you are transmitting? A. To take advantage of the directional effect B. To minimize RF exposure C. To use your body to reflect the signal, improving the directional characteristics of the antenna D. To minimize static discharges ~ 2D-9.6 How can you minimize RF exposure when you are operating your 220-MHz hand-held transceiver? A. Position the antenna near the ground B. Use a shielded RF screen around your antenna C. Use a special short "stubby duck" antenna D. Position the antenna away from your head ~ 2D-9.7 Why should you be carefull to position the antenna of your 1270-MHz hand-held transceiver away from your head when you are transmitting? A. To take advantage of the directional effect B. To use your body to reflect the signal, improving the directional characteristics of the antenna C. To minimize static discharges D. To minimize RF exposure ~ 2D-9.8 How can you minimize RF exposure when you are operating your 1270-MHz hand-held transceiver? A. Position the antenna near the ground B. Use a shielded RF screen around your antenna C. Use a special short "stubby duck" antenna D. Position the antenna away from your head ~ 2D-9.9 How can you minimize RF leakage from your VHF or UHF antenna system? A. Use open-wire line for antenna feed line B. Use only good-quality, well constructed coaxial cable and connectors C. Use special shielded ac line cords with all your equipment D. Use an RF leakage filter on the antenna feed line ~ 2D-9.10 Why should you make sure your VHF or UHF amplifier cannot be energized before you open the amplifier enclosure? A. To minimize static discharge when you open the enclosure B. To minimize RF exposure and prevent electric shock C. To minimize the effects of hand capacitance D. To prevent exposure to Cerenkov radiation from the amplifier ~ 2D-9.11 Why should you never look into a VHF or UHF waveguide when RF is applied A. Because the flourescent coating inside the waveguide gets very bright B. Because exposure to VHF or UHF RF energy can be harmful to your eyes C. Because the waveguide might not be properly grounded D. Because the Cerenkov Effect may scatter RF energy ~ 2D-9.12 Why should you be sure that your transmitter cannot be energized before you work on your VHF or UHF antennas? A. Because operating the transmitter when the antennas are disconnected might harm the transmitter B. Because exposure to VHF or UHF RF energy can be harmful C. Because if the transmitter is operated while you are touching the antenna, the radiated energy might be out of an amateur band D. Because accidental operation might blow a fuse ~ 2E-1.1 Electrons will flow in a copper wire when its two ends are connected to the poles of what kind of source? A. Electromotive or voltage B. Donor C. Reactive D. Resistive ~ 2E-1.2 The pressure in a water pipe is comparable to what force in an electrical circuit? A. Current B. Resistive C. Gravitational D. Voltage ~ 2E-1.3 What are the two polarities of a voltage? A. Right-hand and left-hand B. Forward and reverse C. Positive and negative D. Clockwise and counter clockwise ~ 2E-2.2 What type of current changes direction over and over again in a cyclical manner? A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Negative current D. Positive current ~ 2E-2.3 What is a type of electrical current called that does not periodically reverse direction? A. Alternating current B. Periodic current C. Direct current D. Positive current ~ 2E-3.1 List at least four good electrical insulating materials. A. Glass, air, plastic, porcelain B. Glass, wood, copper, porcelain C. Paper, glass, air, aluminum D. Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon ~ 2E-3.2 List at least three good electrical conductors. A. Copper, gold, mica B. Gold, silver, wood C. Gold, silver, aluminum D. Copper, aluminum, paper ~ 2E-3.3 What is the term for the lowest voltage that will cause a current in an insulator? A. Avalanche voltage B. Plate voltage C. Breakdown voltage D. Zener Voltage ~ 2E-4.1 What is the term for a failure in an electrical circuit that causes excessively high current? A. Open circuit B. Dead circuit C. Closed circuit D. Short circuit ~ 2E-4.2 What is the term for an electrical circuit in which there can be no current flow? A. A closed circuit B. A short circuit C. An open circuit D. A hyper circuit ~ 2E-5.1 What is consumed when a voltage is applied to a circuit causing an electrical current flow? A. Energy B. Volts C. Amps D. Electrons ~ 2E-6.1 What is the approximate length, in meters, of a radio wave having a frequency of 3.725-Mhz? A. 160 meters B. 80 meters C. 40 meters D. 30 meters ~ 2E-6.2 What is the relationship between frequency and wavelength? A. As frequency increases, wavelength decreases B. As frequency increases, wavelength increases C. Frequency and wavelength are not related D. As frequency decreases, wavelength decreases ~ 2E-6.3 What is the approximate length, in meters, of a radio wave having a frequency of 21.120-Mhz? A. 80 meters B. 40 meters C. 15 meters D. 10 meters ~ 2E-7.1 What is the difference between radio frequencies and audio frequencies? A. Audio frequencies are those below 20,000 Hz and radio frequencies are those above 20,000 Hz B. Audio frequencies are those below 50,000 Hz and radio frequencies are those above 50,000 Hz C. Audio frequencies are those below 10,000 Hz and radio frequencies are those above 10,000 Hz D. Audio frequencies are those above 20,000 Hz and radio frequencies are those below 20,000 Hz ~ 2E-7.2 What type of frequency is 3,500,000 Hertz? A. An audio frequency B. A microwave frequency C. An intermediate frequency D. A radio frequency ~ 2E-7.3 Radio frequencies are those above what frequency? A. 20 Hz B. 2000 Hz C. 20,000 Hz D. 2,000,000 Hz ~ 2E-8.1 What type of frequency is 350 Hertz? A. An audio frequency B. A microwave frequency C. An intermediate frequency D. A radio frequency ~ 2E-8.2 Audio frequencies are those below what frequency? A. 10 Hz B. 20 Hz C. 10,000 Hz D. 20,000 Hz ~ 2E-8.3 What type of frequency is 3,500 Hertz? A. Audio frequency B. Radio frequency C. Hyper-frequency D. Super-high frequency ~ 2E-9.1 What is the unit of electromotive force? A. Ampere B. Volt C. Ohm D. Watt ~ 2E-10.1 What is the unit of electrical current? A. Volt B. Watt C. Ampere D. Ohm ~ 2E-11.1 What is the unit of electrical power? A. Ohm B. Watt C. Volt D. Ampere ~ 2E-12.1 What is a Hertz? A. A unit of measure of current B. A unit of measure of capacitance C. A unit of measure of frequency D. A unit of measure of power ~ 2E-12.2 What is another popular term for hertz? A. Cycles per second B. Frequency per wavelength C. Wavelength per cycle D. Meters per frequency ~ 2E-13.1 A frequency of 40,000 Hertz is equal to how many kilohertz? A. 40 B. 4 C. 400 D. 0.04 ~ 2E-13.2 A current of 20 millionths of an ampere is equal to how many microamperes? A. 0.2 B. 2 C. 20 D. 200 ~ 2E-13.3 A current of 2000 milliamperes is equivalent to how many amperes? A. 0.002 A B. 0.2 A C. 2 A D. 2000 A ~ 2E-13.4 What do the prefixes mega- and centi- mean? A. 1,000,000 and 0.01 B. 0.001 and 0.01 C. 1,000,000 and 100 D. 0.001 and 100 ~ 2E-13.5 What do the prefixes micro- and pico- mean? A. 1,000,000 and 1,000 B. 1,000,000 and 1,000,000,000 C. 0.000,001 and 0.001 D. 0.000,001 and 0.000,000,000,001 ~ 2E-13.6 Your receiver dial is calibrated in megahertz and shows a signal at 1200 MHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated in gigahertz show the signal? A. 1.2 GHz B. 12 GHz C. 120 GHz D. 1200 GHz ~ 2E-13.7 Your receiver dial is calibrated in gigahertz and shows a signal at 1.27 GHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated in megahertz show the signal? A. 1.27 MHz B. 12.7 MHz C. 127 MHz D. 1270 MHz ~ 2E-13.8 Your receiver dial is calibrated in megahertz and shows a signal at 223.9 MHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated in kilohertz show the signal? A. 0.223 kHz B. 2239 kHz C. 22,390 kHz D. 223,900 kHz ~ 2F-1.1 What is the general relationship between the thickness of a quartz crystal and its fundamental operating frequency? A. The thickness of a crystal does not affect operating frequency B. Thinner crystals oscillate at lower frequency C. Thinner crystals oscillate at higher frequencies D. Thicker crystals oscillate at higher frequencies ~ 2F-1.3 What chief advantage does a crystal controlled transmitter have over one controlled by a variable frequency oscillator? A. The crystal-controlled transmitter will not produce key clicks B. The crystal-controlled transmitter has better frequency stability C. The crystal-controlled transmitter does not need to be tuned D. The crystal-controlled transmitter can operate at a higher power output ~ 2F-2.1 What two internal components of a D'Arsonal meter inter to cause the indicating needle to move when current flows through the meter? A. A diode and a capacitor B. A transformer and a resistor C. A coil of wire and a permanent magnet D. A dipole and a balun ~ 2F-2.2 What does a voltmeter measure? A. Resistance B. Current C. Power D. Voltage ~ 2F-4.1 What device should be included in electronic equipment to protect it from damage resulting from a short circuit? A. Fuse B. Tube C. Transformer D. Filter ~ 2F-4.2 What happens to a fuse when an excessive amount of current flows through it? A. The fuse explodes, the circuit is destroyed, the current increases. B. The fuse glows red or orange, the circuit shorts, the current increases C. The fuse melts, the circuit shorts, the current increases D. The metal conductor inside the fuse melts, the circuit opens, the current stops ~ 2G-1.2 \ | / \ | / What type of transmitter does this block diagram represent? \|/ ____________ ______________ ______________ | | | | | | | | | XTAL |___\_| DRIVER |_____\_| PA |________\__| | OSC | / | | / | | / |____________| |______________| |______________| | | | ________ | | | | | |_______| KEY |______| |________| A. A simple crystal-controlled receiver B. A simple crystal-controlled transmitter C. A simple sideband transmitter D. A VFO controlled transmitter ~ 2G-1.4 \ | / \ | / What type of transmitter does this block diagram represent? \|/ ____________ ______________ ______________ | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | VFO |--->-| DRIVER |----->-| PA |------->---' | | | | | | |____________| |______________| |______________| | | | ________ | | | | | |_______| KEY |______| |________| A. A single conversion receiver B. A variable frequency oscillator C. A crystal controlled transmitter D. A simple transmitter having a variable frequency oscillator ~ 2G-2.2 What type of device does this block diagram represent? \ | / ANTENNA \|/ | _________ _______ ____________ _________ /| | | | | | | | | | / | |__| MIXER |____| IF |____| DETECTOR |____| AUDIO |___|| | | | | AMP | | | | | || | |_________| |_______| |____________| |_________| \ | ___|___ ___|___ \| | | | | | OSC | | BFO | |_______| |_______| A. A double conversion receiver B. A variable frequency oscillator C. A simple superheterodyne receiver D. A simple cw transmitter ~ 2G-4.1 In an Amateur Radio station designed for radiotelephone operation, what station accessory will you need to go with your transmitter? A. A splatter filter B. A terminal voice controller C. A microphone D. A receiver audio filter ~ 2G-5.1 In an Amateur Radio station designed for radioteletype operation, what station accessory will you need to go with your transmitter? A. A computer, a printer and a RTTY refresh unit B. A modem and a teleprinter or computer system C. A terminal-node-controller D. A modem, a monitor and a DTMF key pad ~ 2G-6.1 In a packet-radio station, what device connects between the radio transceiver and the computer terminal? A. An RS-232 interface B. A terminal-node controller C. A terminal refresh unit D. A tactical network control system ~ 2G-6.2 \ | / What is the unlabeled block in this diagram \ | / of a packet radio station? \|/ | ANTENNA __________________ _________ ______________ | | | | | | | | | COMPUTER |____| ? |_______| TRANSCEIVER | | | SYSTEM | | | | |------->---' |__________________| |_________| |______________| FEED LINE A. A RS-232 interface B. A terminal-node controller C. A terminal refresh unit D. A tactical network control system ~ 2G-6.3 Where does a terminal-node controller connect in an amateur packet-radio station? A. Between the antenna and the radio B. Between the computer and the monitor C. Between the computer or terminal and the radio D. Between the keyboard and the computer ~ 2H-1.1 Which type of emission is an interrupted carrier wave? A. A1A B. A3J C. F3C D. F2B ~ 2H-2.1 What does the term backwave mean? A. A radio wave reflected from the ionosphere back to the sending station B. A small amount of RF that a CW transmitter produces even when the key is not closed C. Radio waves reflected back down the feed line from a mismatched antenna D. The reflected power in a feed line ~ 2H-2.2 What is a possible cause of backwave? A. Low voltage B. Poor neutralization C. Excessive RF drive D. Mismatched antenna ~ 2H-3.1 What does the term key click mean? A. The mechanical noise caused by a straight key B. An excessively square CW keyed waveform C. An excessively fast CW signal D. The sound of a CW signal being copied on an AM receiver ~ 2H-3.2 How can key clicks be eliminated? A. By carefully adjusting your antenna matching network B. By increasing power to the maximum allowable level C. By using a power supply with better regulation D. By using a key click filter ~ 2H-4.1 What does the term chirp mean? A. A distortion in the receiver audio circuits B. A high pitched audio tone transmitted with a CW signal C. A slight shift in oscillator frequency each time a CW transmitter is keyed D. A slow change in transmitter frequency as the circuit warms up ~ 2H-4.2 What can be done to a telegraph transmitter power supply to avoid chirp? A. Resonate the power supply filters B. Regulate the power supply output voltages C. Use a buffer amplifier between the transmitter output and the feed line D. Cause the power-supply output current ot vary with the load ~ 2H-5.1 What is a common cause of superimposed hum A. Using a nonresonant random-wire antenna B. Sympathetic vibrations from a nearby transmitter C. Improper neutralization of the transmitter output stage D. A defective filter capacitor in the power supply ~ 2H-6.1 28.160 is the 4th harmonic of what fundamental frequency? A. 7.040 MHz B. 112.64 MHz C. 7.160 MHz D. 1.760 Mhz ~ 2H-8.1 What emission designator describes the use of frequency shift keying to transmit radioteletype messages? A. F2D B. F1B C. J1F D. A1B ~ 2H-8.2 What keying method is used to transmit F1B radio teletype messages? A. Frequency shift keying B. On-off keying of the radio wave C. Split-baud keying D. Tuned-output keying ~ 2H-9.1 What emission designator describes single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSB) voice transmissions? A. J2D B. A3J C. J3E D. F3E ~ 2H-9.2 What type of signal is emission J3E? A. Frequency-modulated voice B. Single-sideband suppresssed-carrier voice C. Frequency-shift keyed RTTY D. Packet radio ~ 2H-10.1 What emission designator describes frequency-modulated voice transmissions? A. F1B B. F2D C. F3E D. A3F ~ 2H-10.2 What type of signal is emission F3E? A. Frequency-modulated voice B. Single-sideband suppresssed-carrier voice C. Frequency-shift keyed RTTY D. Packet radio ~ 2H-11.1 What may happen to body tissues that are exposed to large amounts of RF energy? A. The tissue may be damaged because of the heat produced B. The tissue may be suddenly frozen C. The tissue may be immediately destroyed because of the Maxwell effect D. The tissue may become less resistant to cosmic radiation ~ 2H-11.2 What precaution should you take before working near a high-gain UHF or microwave antenna (such as a parabolic, or dish antenna)? A. Be certain the antenna is FCC type approved B. Be certain the antenna and transmitter are properly grounded C. Be certain the transmitter cannot be operated D. Be certain the antenna safety interlocks are in place ~ 2H-11.3 How should the antenna on a hand-held transceiver be positioned while you are transmitting? A. As close to your body as possible, to take advantage of the directional effect B. Away from your head and away from others standing nearby, to minimize RF exposure C. Close to the Ground, since a hand-held transceiver has no ground connection D. As close to a vertical as possible, to minimize corona effect. ~ 2H-11.4 Why should you always locate your antennas so that no one can come in contact with them while you are transmitting? A. To prevent damage to the antennas B. To prevent RF burns and excessive exposure to RF energy C. To comply with FCC regulations concerning antenna height D. To prevent unexpected changes in your standing-wave ratio ~ 2H-11.5 What is a good way to prevent RF burns and excessive exposure to RF from your antennas? A. Shield your antenna with a grounded RF screen B. Make sure you use plenty of radial wires in your antenna installation C. Use burn-proof wire for your antenna feed line D. Always locate your antennas so that no one can come in contact with them while you are transmitting ~ 2H-12.1 What type of interference will you cause if you operate your SSB transmitter with the microphone gain adjusted too high? A. You may cause digital interference to computer equipment in your neighborhood B. You may cause atmospheric interference in the air around your antenna C. You may cause splatter interference to other stations on nearby frequencies D. You may cause processor interference to the microprocessor in your rig ~ 2H-12.2 What may happen if you adjust the microphone gain or deviation control on your FM transmitter to high? A. You may cause digital interference to computer equipment in your neighborhood B. You may cause interference to other stations on nearby frequencies C. You may cause atmospheric interference in the air around your antenna D. You may cause processor interference to the microprocessor in your rig ~ 2H-12.3 If you are using an excessive amount of speech processing with your SSB transmitter, what type of interference are you likely to cause? A. You may cause digital interference to computer equipment in your neighborhood B. You may cause splatter interference to other stations on nearby frequencies C. You may cause atmospheric interference in the air around your antenna D. You may cause processor interference to the microprocessor in your rig ~ 2H-12.4 If you are operating SSB voice and another operator tells you that you are causing "splatter", what might be the cause of the interference? A. Your rig may be switching from transmit to receive too quickly B. You may have your transmitter microphone gain control set too high C. Your rig may have a defective modulator transistor D. You may have your transmitter splatter control set incorrectly ~ 2H-12.5 If you are operating FM voice and another operator tells you that your signal is "too wide" and that you are causing interference to other stations on nearby frequencies, what might be the cause of the interference? A. You may have your transmitter deviation control or microphone gain control set too high B. The spectral width control on your transmitter may be set incorrectly C. Your microphone may be defective D. You may need to use an amplified "power microphone" ~ 2I-1.1 What is the approximate length of a half-wave dipole antenna for 3725-kHz? A. 126 ft B. 81 ft C. 63 ft D. 40 ft ~ 2I-1.2 What is the approximate length of a half-wave dipole antenna for 7125-kHz? A. 84 ft B. 42 ft C. 33 ft D. 66 ft ~ 2I-1.3 What is the approximate length of a half-wave dipole antenna for 21,125 kHz? A. 44 ft B. 28 ft C. 22 ft D. 14 ft ~ 2I-1.4 What is the approximate length of a half-wave dipole antenna for 28,150 kHz? A. 22 ft B. 11 ft C. 17 ft D. 34 ft ~ 2I-2.1 What is the approximate length of a quarter-wave vertical antenna for 3725 kHz? A. 20 ft B. 32 ft C. 40 ft D. 63 ft ~ 2I-2.2 What is the approximate length of a quarter-wave vertical antenna for 7125 kHz? A. 11 ft B. 16 ft C. 21 ft D. 33 ft ~ 2I-2.3 What is the approximate length of a quarter-wave vertical antenna for 21,125 kHz? A. 7 ft B. 11 ft C. 14 ft D. 22 ft ~ 2I-2.4 What is the approximate length of a quarter-wave vertical antenna for 28,150 kHz? A. 5 ft B. 8 ft C. 11 ft D. 16 ft ~ 2I-2.5 When a vertical antenna is lengthened, what happens to its resonant frequency? A. It decreases B. It increases C. It stays the same D. It doubles ~ 2I-2.6 What is the approximate length (in inches) of a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna for the 220-MHz band? A. 19-1/2 inches B. 22 inches C. 28-1/2 inches D. 32 inches ~ 2I-2.7 Why do many amateurs use a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna rather than a 1/4-wavelength vertical antenna for their VHF or UHF mobile stations? A. A 5/8-wavelength antenna can handle more power than a 1/4-wavelength antenna B. A 5/8 wavelength antenna has more gain than a 1/4-wavelength antenna C. A 5/8-wavelength antenna exhibits less corona loss than an 1/4-wavelength antenna D. A 5/8-wavelength antenna looks more like a CB antenna, so it does not attract as much attention as a 1/4-wavelength antenna ~ 2I-3.1 What is a coaxial cable? A. Two parallel conductors encased along the edges of a flat plastic ribbon B. Two parallel conductors held at a fixed distance from each other by insulating rods C. Two conductors twisted around each other in a double spiral D. A center conductor encased in insulating material which is covered by a conducting sleeve or shield, and encased in a weatherproof jacket ~ 2I-3.2 What kind of antenna feed line is constructed of a center conductor encased in insulation which is then covered by an outer conducting shield and weatherproof jacket? A. Twin lead B. Coaxial cable C. Open-wire feed line D. Waveguide ~ 2I-3.3 What are some advantages in using coaxial cable as an antenna feed line? A. It is easy to make at home, and it has a characteristic impedance in the range of most common amateur antennas B. It is weatherproof, and it has a characteristic impedance in the range of most common amateur antennas C. It can be operated at a higher SWR than twin lead, and it is weatherproof D. It is unaffected by nearby metallic objects, and has a characteristic impedance that is higher than twin lead ~ 2I-3.4 What commonly-available feed line can be buried directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects? A. Twin lead B. Coaxial cable C. Parallel conductor D. Twisted pair ~ 2I-3.5 When an antenna feed line must be located near grounded metal objects, which commonly-available feed line should be used? A. Twisted pair B. Twin lead C. Coaxial cable D. Ladder-line ~ 2I-4.1 What is parallel conductor feed line? A. Two conductors twisted around each other in a double spiral B. Two parallel conductors held a uniform distance apart by insulating material C. A conductor encased in an insulating material which is then covered by a conducting shield and a weatherproof jacket D. A metallic pipe whose diameter is equal to or slightly greater than the wavelength of the signal being carried ~ 2I-4.2 How can TV-type twin lead be used as a feed line? A. By carefully running the feed line line parallel to a metal post to ensure self resonance B. TV-type twin lead cannot be used in an Amateur Radio Station C. By installing an impedance-matching network between the transmitter and feed line D. By using a high power amplifier and installing a power attenuator between the transmitter and feed line ~ 2I-4.3 What are some advantages in using parallel conductor feed line? A. It has a lower characteristic impedance than coaxial cable, and will operate at a higher SWR than coaxial cable B. It will operate at a higher SWR than coaxial cable, and it is unaffected by nearby metal objects C. It has a lower characteristic impedance than coaxial cable, and has less loss than coaxial cable D. It will operate at higher SWR than coaxial cable and it has less loss than coaxial cable ~ 2I-4.4 What are some disadvantages in using parallel conductor feed line? A. It is affected by nearby metallic objects, and it has a characteristic impedance that is too high for direct connection to most amateur transmitters B. It is more difficult to make at home than coaxial cable and it cannot be operated at a high SWR C. It is affected by nearby metallic objects, and it cannot handle the power output of a typical amateur transmitter D. It has a characteristic impedance that is too high for direct connection to most amateur transmitters, and it will operate at a high SWR ~ 2I-4.5 What kind of antenna feed line is constructed of two conductors maintained a uniform distance apart by insulated spreaders? A. Coaxial cable B. Ladder-line open-conductor line C. Twin lead in a plastic ribbon D. Twisted pair ~ 2I-5.1 What type of radiation pattern is produced by a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna? A. A pattern with the transmitted signal spread out equally in all directions B. A pattern with more of the transmitted signal concentrated in one direction than in others C. A pattern with most of the transmitted signal concentrated in two opposite directions D. A pattern with most of the transmitted signal concentrated at high radiation angles ~ 2I-6.1 What type of radiation pattern is produced by a Yagi antenna? A. A pattern with the transmitted signal spread out equally in all directions B. A pattern with more of the transmitted signal concentrated in one direction than in others C. A pattern with most of the transmitted signal concentrated in two opposite directions D. A pattern with most of the transmitted signal concentrated at high radiation angles ~ 2I-6.5 Approximately how long (in wavelengths) is the driven element of a Yagi antenna? A. 1/4 wavelength B. 1/3 wavelength C. 1/2 wavelength D. 1 wavelength ~